Respuesta a: Eliminar las referencias ocultas a la esclavitud

[Jakub Jermar]

Well neither does the US constitution, but the reason this strikingly similar formulation is there is to keep the slave trade going for some time.

See:
https://avalon.law.yale.edu/18th_century/fed42.asp

My argument is: since we don’t have slave trade in Europe, we don’t need this paragraph. Or at least don’t make it look like it is the redressed US one (which for sure is about slave trade).